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Home › Forums › The Middle Ages › Prima nocta
In your studies, have you ever come across any references to “prima nocta” (jus primae noctis/droit de seigneur) as something that actually happened in the Middle Ages? Or, is it more of a fable that has been kept alive due to its abhorrent nature?
It's a fable: nothing was ever found about that supposedly “right” in French Positive law, public archives or customs.http://leconservateur.bafweb.com/index.php?2008/01/28/1177-le-droit-de-cuissage-n-a-jamais-existe
I can't cite sources proving it was a custom or a fable. But in my readings it seems to be something widely accepted as being the practice of the times.
I can't cite sources proving it was a custom or a fable. But in my readings it seems to be something widely accepted as being the practice of the times.
Legends can be found in many books. The problem about Prima Nocta is its historical relevance if you consider how separated were the social classes during the Middle Age. The Lord of the Manor honouring all the villain's brides ? Not surprising that he would hastily join any crusade nearby ... 😉
I have to agree with Omer and Aeth here. As far as I know, the right of Prima Nocta is a myth. Mel Gibson sure made it famous in Braveheart though and as we all know, if it was in a movie it must be true. Hollywood would not lie about stuff like that. 😉
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