Home › Forums › Ancient Civilizations › A question about pre-historic/historic civilizations
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Phidippides
KeymasterWe have talked about the division of pre-history and history before and how the beginning of writing sets the two apart. We generally say that the pre-historic period ends around 3200 B.C. or so when the Sumerians started writing. However, not all civilizations began writing at the same time. I imagine that some sub-Saharan African groups, tribes from the Americas, etc. did not start writing until well after that time. How do we refer to the periods in which these groups existed? For example, say we are discussing African history, c. 500 A.D., where writing was not use used or invented. Is this still called “pre-historic Africa” because that particular society did not yet know how to read/write?
skiguy
ModeratorThis sort of can be linked to the question I asked in this thread.Is African history, before European colonization, pre-history?
scout1067
ParticipantIs African history, before European colonization, pre-history?
Of course, because we can't really know what happened beyond the most rudimentary of information.
Phidippides
KeymasterSo for the people living in isolated jungle areas of Brazil…they are still in “pre-history”? This would make sense in some regard, but then why don't we also talk about “prehistoric American Indians”?
skiguy
Moderatorbut then why don't we also talk about “prehistoric American Indians”?
I read a book that mentions this. The author doesn't exactly call them “pre-historic” but she did say there isn't much recorded history about them.Another question, do you think a nomadic society/civilization would be pre- or unrecorded history seeing that it's so difficult to trace them?
scout1067
ParticipantI read a book that mentions this. The author doesn't exactly call them “pre-historic” but she did say there isn't much recorded history about them.Another question, do you think a nomadic society/civilization would be pre- or unrecorded history seeing that it's so difficult to trace them?
What is the difference between the two distinctions other than semantics? Pre- or Unrecorded means that both are unknowable to any great extent and definitely in any detail great enough to make historical interpretation possible or relevant.
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