Getting back to the main point of the posts, as for catalysts for war…what about retribution? Didn't Alexander head toward Persia in retribution, and do you think there was a bit of retribution when Hitler moved east? Plus many of the wars between England and France was to take back something taken from them, plus a little extra from time to time.
Getting back to the main point of the posts, as for catalysts for war...what about retribution? Didn't Alexander head toward Persia in retribution, and do you think there was a bit of retribution when Hitler moved east? Plus many of the wars between England and France was to take back something taken from them, plus a little extra from time to time.
I thought that Alexander simply wanted conquest. retribution for past Persian wrongs was just a convenient excuse for him to do what he wanted anyway. I dont where retribution fits into Hitler's plans for conquest in the East. you will have to enlighten me on that one.England and France spent most of their time in the Middle Ages fighting over various territory in France. I dont think Retribution had a lot to do with it unless you accept English claims to Normandy and subsequently to the French crown as valid. The English Kings had a valid claim to the ancestral Norman lands. The claim to the Crown of France rested on much more dubious grounds, being based on a bequest that no reliable wittness could attest to.
The Germans were humilated when they signed the Treaty of Versailles. Hitler made the French sign their surrender in the same box car the Germans did in World War I. There was some retribution, but I would call it revenge.
The Germans were humilated when they signed the Treaty of Versailles. Hitler made the French sign their surrender in the same box car the Germans did in World War I. There was some retribution, but I would call it revenge.
Yes but that was against the west, and if looked at objectively, perhaps even somewhat justified. Hitler had no call for retribution in the east. The Nazi conquest of the east was motivated strictly along racial and economic motives.
The Germans were humilated when they signed the Treaty of Versailles. Hitler made the French sign their surrender in the same box car the Germans did in World War I. There was some retribution, but I would call it revenge.
The only argument I could make for Hitler wanting retribution in the East was because he had to eliminate the influences of Marx in Germany. He hated socialism and communism vehemently. The Russians might have bowed out of World War I, but they still killed many Germans before they turned to inward with their own civil war. Russia was never Germany's "friend" so the animosity had always been there, even when Hitler signed a pact with Stalin. Both anticipated the other betraying them, but Stalin didn't think Hitler would do it so unabashedly and so quickly.Yes but that was against the west, and if looked at objectively, perhaps even somewhat justified. Hitler had no call for retribution in the east. The Nazi conquest of the east was motivated strictly along racial and economic motives.
Marx was born in present day Western Germany. Perhaps the retribution aspect could hark back to the years of the Freikorps and the attempted communist takeover of post-WWI Weimar Germany? That is only way I could see revenge being a part of the catalyst for the Second World War.
All, in my simple opinion. War serves those that promote it, and the soldier is never in that rich class of war mongers. Money, profit; that's what fuels war.
Suffice it to say, "Palestinian" is a modern contrivance that dates to the 1970's when the PLO successfully hoodwinked the world into believing they were somehow different than the Jordanians they actually are.
I do not agree because back in 1920 it was called The British Mandate of Palestine. I also don't agree they were Jordanians...remember Jordan wasn't even a country until after. The Mandate gave the West Bank to the British created zone called Transjordan, so the Palestinians were given an area. It wasn't until after Israel took and settled the West Bank that trouble really began. As far as being actual Jordanians, Palestinians in Jordan outnumber the native population by more than two to one. 11Geography: Realms, Regions, and Concepts, 13th edition, H.J. de Bilj and Peter O. Muller
Suffice it to say, "Palestinian" is a modern contrivance that dates to the 1970's when the PLO successfully hoodwinked the world into believing they were somehow different than the Jordanians they actually are.
I do not agree because back in 1920 it was called The British Mandate of Palestine. I also don't agree they were Jordanians...remember Jordan wasn't even a country until after. The Mandate gave the West Bank to the British created zone called Transjordan, so the Palestinians were given an area. It wasn't until after Israel took and settled the West Bank that trouble really began. As far as being actual Jordanians, Palestinians in Jordan outnumber the native population by more than two to one. 11Geography: Realms, Regions, and Concepts, 13th edition, H.J. de Bilj and Peter O. Muller
Let's look at the British Mandate again. Palestine was what Britain called the new geographical area, and it was divided into two regions demarcated by the Jordan River, Palestine on the West Bank, and Transjordan on the East Bank. By your logic, the Jews that lived there are "Palestinians" since Jews have always inhabited the region even during the Diaspora. When the British Mandate ended in 1948, the Arabs lost a war to the Jews who then formed Israel from Palestine. So the Palestinians (who were not called as such during the Mandate years), were not given anything.....Palestine was just a name given to the West Bank half of the British Mandate since the Romans called the Land of Israel Palestine which only referred to the Philistines (who were not Arabs nor even remotely connected to the "Palestinians" of today). The Philistines were a cross of the Phoenicians, Egyptians, Caananites, and Hittites. Israel/Judah warred with the Philistines and subjugated them during the Davidic and Solomonic kingdoms. Arabs didn't even enter Palestine until after the advent of Islam and the conquests of the Umayyad and Abbasid caliphates and then they were in turn subjugated by the Seljuk Turks and later the Ottomans after them. So tell me now, who owns "Palestine?" The answer is.....whoever controls the land at the time, and that's the Jews for the moment. 🙂
By your logic, the Jews that lived there are "Palestinians" since Jews have always inhabited the region even during the Diaspora.
No, I'm just saying "Palestinian/Palestine" isn't a new concept that started in the 70's.
The answer is.....whoever controls the land at the time, and that's the Jews for the moment. 🙂
Israel's actions destabilized at least two Arab countries, radicalized much of the Arab world against the West, and led directly to the rise of the modern international terrorist movement. Are we to just sit back and accept this because it's Israel?
Yes it is Ken, Yasser Arafat started that in the 1970's to distinguish his followers from the Hashemite kingdom of Jordan (which they tried to overthrow btw).Check your history on who tried to destabilize who. The Jews never started any war, they only finished them. The 1967 Six Day War doesn't count either since the Arabs were already mobilizing against them Israel just didn't wait to be attacked. The Arabs brought their miseries upon themselves bottom line.
We'll just have to agree to disagree.Here's a link to some historical documents from the 1910's-1940's that mention (and somewhat define) Palestine and Palestinian.
Check your history on who tried to destabilize who.
The Israel/Palestinian conflict is a very complicated issue and all sides and facts need to be addressed.
Yes it is complex, very complex, but also one of the most politicized conflicts in recorded history. Both sides claim victim status and have manipulated the major world powers to their respective causes.
Ken,I keep waiting for you to mention the Protocols of the Elders of Zion in your anti-Israeli rants. I realize you think that American support for Israel harms us but what I still dont get is who you think would make a better ally in the region. Please enlighten me here. I have said it before and I will say it again there is no other country in the Middle East that even begins to share the democratic value of the US as closely as does Israel, they are our natural ally. You don't simply abandon your friends because they are unpopular, which is what you seem to advocate.
Who's abandoning? I'm just trying to show all sides and perspectives. Are you (and others) going to say Israel is completely blameless in everything they've done? Are you also implying that no other country in the region is capable of being a US ally?Britain and France screwed up a lot in their partitioning of the area. Does saying that mean I "abandon" GB and France as allies and side with the Arabs only? Maybe we're in disagreement about who our friends are over there. Israel isn't the only one. I just think our alliance with Israel is a serious disadvantage to our...and our ALONE...current goals over there.Why can we critisize every country in Europe, China, Japan, Russia, South America, and Africa but if Israel is critisized it's taboo?