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According to my research, Charlemagne was not known as Charlemagne during his reign, but I cannot find the eact year/decade he became known as such or Karl der Grosse. Has anyone here an answer to my weighty question?
Probably Einhard in his biography of Charlemagne (circa 817 to 833) : “EINHARDI VITA KAROLI MAGNI”http://www.thelatinlibrary.com/ein.html http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/basis/einhard.html
Probably Einhard in his biography of Charlemagne (circa 817 to 833) : "EINHARDI VITA KAROLI MAGNI"http://www.thelatinlibrary.com/ein.html http://www.fordham.edu/halsall/basis/einhard.html
Then you but --- "Great Charles" -- I knew about Einhard's bio, but when was Karoli Magnus Frenchified to Charlemagne?
The Caroligians were Franks, speaking a germanic language. Latin was again declared lingua franca with the Carolingian Renaissance. Modern French comes from the evolution of Vulgar Latin mixed with Frankish language (with few Celtic parts). French is considered as the most germanised of romanesque languages.So I suppose that Karolus Magnus slowly shift into Charle Magne as well as French evolved in what it is today(Hope this helps)
Yes, it does, but as I am writing a novel set during the reign of Louis the Pious, I do not want to make the mistake of calling him Charlemagne before it became used. So far, I am referring to him in conversations as Great Charles. I suppose the same problem exists for Germanic Aachen and when Aix la Chapelle came into use. One source I found says the transition to a regional French language emerged in the mid-800s.
French as the “legal” language emerged in 10 August 1539 with the Ordinance of Villers-Cotter?ts by Fran?ois 1er. Before that day, that kind of French (langue d'o?l) could be compared to any local French languages (Oc, etc.)However some might argue that the Oaths of Strasbourg (between Louis the German and Charles the Bald; 806?877) give evidence about the development of French and German as separate spoken languages and not to the development of diverging Romance dialects. Anyway, it still can be considered as "dialect" until 1539... 😛
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